First-grade PRMIA Free 8020 Practice Exams and Realistic Pass 8020 Test Guide
First-grade PRMIA Free 8020 Practice Exams and Realistic Pass 8020 Test Guide
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PRMIA ORM Certificate - 2023 Update Sample Questions (Q51-Q56):
NEW QUESTION # 51
Which of the following best describes the role of the compliance department?
- A. The compliance department is responsible for providing oversight over the first line's implementation of compliance risk management controls.
- B. The compliance department is responsible for providing oversight over the board's implementation of compliance risk management controls.
- C. The compliance department is responsible for providing oversight over the auditor's implementation of compliance risk management controls.
- D. The compliance department is responsible for implementing the first line's compliance risk management controls.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Three Lines of Defense Model
The compliance department functions as the second line of defense, ensuring oversight over the first line's compliance controls.
It does not directly implement controls but monitors and advises on compliance risk management.
Responsibilities of the Compliance Department
Ensures regulatory compliance with laws, policies, and industry standards.
Monitors and enforces risk management controls within business operations.
Provides advisory and training on compliance risks.
Why Answer D is Correct
The first line of defense (business operations) is responsible for executing compliance controls.
The compliance department (second line) provides oversight and governance to ensure compliance adherence.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . The compliance department is responsible for implementing the first line's compliance risk management controls.
Incorrect - The first line (business units) implement compliance controls, while compliance oversees.
B . The compliance department is responsible for providing oversight over the auditor's implementation of compliance risk management controls.
Incorrect - Internal audit is part of the third line of defense, not directly overseen by compliance.
C . The compliance department is responsible for providing oversight over the board's implementation of compliance risk management controls.
Incorrect - The board provides high-level governance; compliance ensures business adherence to regulations.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Governance & Compliance Oversight Framework
Basel Committee's Guidelines on Compliance Risk Management
NEW QUESTION # 52
An example of Credit Risk events with an Operational Risk component included?
- A. Rogue Trading.
- B. Ponzi Schemes & Rogue Trading.
- C. Failure in loan approval process leading to erroneously approved loans.
- D. Ponzi Schemes.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Step 1: Understanding Credit Risk with an Operational Risk Component
Credit Risk: Risk of loss due to borrower default.
Operational Risk: Risk of loss due to failed internal processes, fraud, or misconduct.
Step 2: Why Option D is Correct
Ponzi Schemes: Fraudulent investment scams disguise credit risk as legitimate lending but collapse when new funds dry up.
Rogue Trading: Traders take unauthorized risks that can lead to credit defaults or massive financial losses.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Failure in loan approval process") → This is an Operational Risk issue, but does not always create Credit Risk.
Option B ("Ponzi Schemes") → Partially correct, but does not include Rogue Trading, which is also a credit risk-related operational failure.
Option C ("Rogue Trading") → Partially correct, but does not include Ponzi Schemes, which are another key example.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Operational Risk Framework - Highlights fraud-based Credit Risk events.
Basel II/III Operational Risk Guidelines - Discusses trading misconduct and credit risk misrepresentation.
Final Conclusion:
Both Ponzi Schemes and Rogue Trading involve credit risk failures caused by operational misconduct, making Option D the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 53
For the National Australia Bank - FX Options case study, which was the major cause of the loss event?
- A. Currency traders were allowed access to the risk system by the CEO.
- B. Currency traders were able to complete a Management Buy Out (MBO).
- C. Currency traders concealed losses using back office knowledge.
- D. Currency traders smoothed profits and concealed losses.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Overview of the National Australia Bank (NAB) FX Options Case Study
Traders at National Australia Bank (NAB) engaged in unauthorized foreign exchange (FX) options trading.
They smoothed profits and concealed losses using fictitious transactions and manipulated reporting.
This led to a major financial scandal and loss of investor confidence.
Key Findings of the Investigation
Traders artificially smoothed profits to avoid drawing attention to large fluctuations.
Losses were concealed from internal risk controls by manipulating trade records.
The bank's risk management and governance controls failed to detect and prevent these activities.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Currency traders were allowed access to the risk system by the CEO.
Incorrect - No evidence suggests CEO involvement in granting system access.
B . Currency traders concealed losses using back-office knowledge.
Incorrect - While they concealed losses, they also smoothed profits to manipulate earnings trends.
D . Currency traders were able to complete a Management Buy Out (MBO).
Incorrect - This event was not related to a Management Buyout (MBO); it was a trading scandal.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Fraud and Risk Management Case Studies
Basel Principles on Market Risk and Internal Control Failures
NEW QUESTION # 54
In operational resilience, what is impact tolerance?
- A. Impact tolerance is a firm's tolerance for disruption to a particular business service.
- B. Impact tolerance is a firm's risk appetite statement.
- C. Impact tolerance is a firm's risk capacity statement.
- D. Impact tolerance is a firm's tolerance for disruption to a particular business process.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Impact Tolerance is a key concept in Operational Resilience, defined as the ability of a firm to withstand, respond to, and recover from disruptions. According to PRMIA and global regulatory frameworks (such as the Bank of England's Operational Resilience Framework), impact tolerance is specifically tied to business services rather than processes.
Step 1: Defining Impact Tolerance
Impact tolerance is the maximum acceptable level of disruption to an important business service, beyond which there would be intolerable harm to customers, financial markets, or regulatory obligations.
It is not the same as risk appetite or risk capacity, as those deal with broader organizational risk exposure.
Step 2: Why Business Services Matter
PRMIA defines business services as end-to-end services delivered to clients and stakeholders, such as payments processing, trade execution, or loan approvals.
Disruptions to these services directly impact customers and financial stability, making business service resilience the core focus of impact tolerance.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("tolerance for disruption to a particular business process")
Incorrect because impact tolerance applies to services, not just internal processes.
Option C ("a firm's risk appetite statement")
Incorrect because risk appetite focuses on how much risk a firm is willing to take, while impact tolerance is about surviving disruptions.
Option D ("a firm's risk capacity statement")
Incorrect because risk capacity is the maximum level of risk a firm can bear, which is broader than business service disruptions.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Operational Resilience Guidelines - Defines impact tolerance as a service-based metric.
Bank of England's Operational Resilience Framework - Establishes impact tolerance as a limit on business service disruption.
Final Conclusion:
Impact tolerance focuses on business services, not just internal processes or risk appetite, making Option B the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 55
Managing financial crime is a part of risk and compliance for many firms. Which of the following is a useful control to help reduce this risk?
- A. The requirements to trace all transactions when they are entered into spreadsheets.
- B. Having the business be a cash only business and not report any transactions.
- C. Development of scenarios and red flags that are used to monitor transactions and identify suspicious customers and activities.
- D. Local regulations that allow a bank to not report transactions by family members of the board.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Financial Crime Risk Management
Managing financial crime requires implementing controls, monitoring, and reporting systems to detect and prevent illegal activities.
Developing red flags and monitoring scenarios allows firms to detect suspicious transactions related to money laundering, fraud, and terrorist financing.
Why Answer C is Correct
PRMIA emphasizes that effective risk management requires proactive monitoring of transactions using red flags, transaction patterns, and anomaly detection systems.
This is aligned with Anti-Money Laundering (AML) and Counter-Terrorism Financing (CTF) regulatory requirements.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Having the business be a cash-only business and not report any transactions.
Incorrect - Cash-only businesses with no reporting are high-risk for financial crime.
B . The requirements to trace all transactions when they are entered into spreadsheets.
Incorrect - While transaction tracing is important, spreadsheets alone are not an effective control mechanism for financial crime.
D . Local regulations that allow a bank to not report transactions by family members of the board.
Incorrect - This would violate AML and financial crime regulations, increasing corruption risk.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Financial Crime and AML Risk Guidelines
Basel Committee on Financial Crime and Money Laundering
NEW QUESTION # 56
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